Discrete Math
Review Chapter 4 Solutions
1. Compute the first 4 terms of the following sequences:
a.
,
for all n > 1 3/2, 6/5, 9/10, 12/17
b.
,
for all m > 0 2, 3, 3, 4
2. Find an explicit formula for the following sequence:
![]()
3. Compute the summation or product as indicated:
a.
31/16 or 1 15/16
b.
8640
4. Rewrite the following using summation notation:
1 + r + r2 + r3
+ r4 + r5
![]()
5. Prove each of the following using mathematical induction:
a. 2 + 4 + 6 + … + 2n = n2 + n for all integers n >1.
Step 1: P(1) = 2(1) = 2 12 + 1 = 2 2=2
Step 2: Suppose P(k) is true: That is, suppose that 2+4+6+…+2k = k2+k
Step 3: We want to show P(k+1) is true: That is, 2+4+6+…+2(k+1) = (k+1)2+(k+1)
2+4+6+…+2(k+1)= [2+4+6+…+2k]+2(k+1)
= [k2+k]+2(k+1)
= k2+3k+2
= (k2+2k+1)+(k+1)
= (k+1)2 + (k+1) Q.E.D.
b. 23n – 1 is divisible by 7, for all integers n > 1.
Step 1: P(1) = 23(1)–1 = 8-1 = 7, and 7=7(1), so 7 is divisible by 7.
Step 2: Suppose P(k) is true: 23k-1 is divisible by 7.
Step 3: We want to show P(k+1) is true: 23(k+1)-1 is divisible by 7.
23(k+1)–1 = 23k+3–1 = (23k)(23)–1 = (23k)8–(8–7) = 8 (23k)–8+7 = 8(23k–1)+7
We know from our supposition that 23k–1 is divisible by 7, and 7 is divisible by 7, so the sum 8(23k–1) + 7 is also divisible by 7. Q.E.D.
c. n! > n2, for all integers n > 4
Step 1: P(4) –> 4! = 24 and 42 = 16, so 4! > 42
Step 2: Suppose P(k) is true: Suppose k! > k2
Step 3: We want to show (k+1)! > (k+1)2
From our hypothesis, k! > k2. Multiply both sides by (k+1) and you have k!(k+1) > k2(k+1)
(k+1)! > k3 + k2 But how does k3 + k2 compare to (k+1)2?
If we can show k3 + k2 > (k+1)2 for k > 4, we have what we need by the transitive property. We can simplify a little first: k3 + k2 > k2 + 2k + 1, so
k3 > 2k + 1 is all we need to show.
Sub-Proof: Step 1: P(4): 43 = 64, 2(4)+1 = 9, 64>9. It works for 4.
Step 2: Suppose P(a) is true where 4<a<k: a3 > 2a + 1
Step 3: Show P(a+1) is true: (a+1)3 > 2(a+1) + 1 {or 2a+3}
(a+1)3 = a3 + 3a2 + 3a + 1
>(2a+1) + 3a2 + 3a + 1 from the hypothesis
> (2a+1+2) + 3a2 + 3a + 1 – 2
> (2a+3) + 3a2 + 3a – 1
Since a > 4, 3a2 + 3a – 1 > 0, and since (a+1)3 is greater than (2a+3) + some positive number, the inequality holds, k3 > 2k+1
and now we can say (k+1)! > (k+1)2 Q.E.D.
** No, you will not have one this complicated on the test. No sub-proofs required. J
6. Use strong mathematical induction to prove the following:
Suppose that E0 = 1, E1 = 2, E3 = 3, Ek = Ek–1 + Ek–2 + Ek–3 for all integers k > 3.
Prove that En < 3n for all integers n >0.
Step 1: E0 = 1, 1 < 30
E1 = 2, 2 < 31
E2 = 3, 3 < 32
Step 2: Let k be an integer > 3 and suppose Ei < 3i for 0 < I < k.
[We want to show that Ek < 3k].
Ek = Ek-1+Ek-2+Ek-3 from the definition of the sequence.
By the hypothesis, Ek-1 < 3k-1, Ek-2< 3k-2, and Ek-3 < 3k-3. so, adding these three inequalities together, we get
Ek-1+Ek-2+Ek-3 < 3k-1 + 3k-2 + 3k-3. Since 3k-3 and 3k-2 are both < 3k-1, we can say
Ek < 3k-1 + 3k-1 + 3k-1
Or Ek < 3(3k-1)
So Ek < 3k. Q.E.D.
I hope there are no typos. J